Peru and Mexico signed this week a trade agreement with the aim of jointly reaching out to Asia, an undertaking that they want Chile and Colombia to join Read full article
Does this Agreement operate inside CAN rules or outside CAN rules?
And does it help or hinder Mexico's desire to relocate Mexico from North America to South America?
There's no desire to relocate Mexico at all, the free trade agreement is good for both countries, Mexico has free trade agreements with Europe, Japan, US, Costa Rica, Chile and other countries as well.
The question still stands - but let's make it more specific, for clarity.
If Mexixo makes a Free Trade Agreement with one member of a trading bloc, does this mean a Free Trade Agreement has been made with all other members?
Because, if not, it MUST be to the disadvantage of all the other members (of CAN, in this case).
Or does a Free Trade Agreement attempt to destroy Trading Blocs?
In which case there is no future for CAN and Mercosur - and, by necessary extension, Unasur.
Is the primary desire to destroy supra-national arrangements?
or is it to just get the best deal 'for me, whilst me and everybody else is kicking the Trading Bloc rules to death'?
PS. Mexico, herself, has indicated her desire to re-locate to Mercosur/Unasur and to leave the Northern group.
A trade agreement does not destroy a trading block, the purpose of a trading bloc is not protectionism, but to facilitate trade and commercial activities among countries.
If Peru and Mexico sign a trade agreement, it is to the benefit of its citizens who can provide products and services of mutual benefit.
Mexico has never indicated that it wishes to leave the Nafta agreement, it has voice its interest in being also part of Mercosur but that does not imply abandoning a the Nafta agreement.
Comments
Disclaimer & comment rulesDoes this Agreement operate inside CAN rules or outside CAN rules?
Apr 09th, 2011 - 08:54 pm - Link - Report abuse 0And does it help or hinder Mexico's desire to relocate Mexico from North America to South America?
GeoffWard,
Apr 10th, 2011 - 04:18 am - Link - Report abuse 0There's no desire to relocate Mexico at all, the free trade agreement is good for both countries, Mexico has free trade agreements with Europe, Japan, US, Costa Rica, Chile and other countries as well.
The question still stands - but let's make it more specific, for clarity.
Apr 10th, 2011 - 01:55 pm - Link - Report abuse 0If Mexixo makes a Free Trade Agreement with one member of a trading bloc, does this mean a Free Trade Agreement has been made with all other members?
Because, if not, it MUST be to the disadvantage of all the other members (of CAN, in this case).
Or does a Free Trade Agreement attempt to destroy Trading Blocs?
In which case there is no future for CAN and Mercosur - and, by necessary extension, Unasur.
Is the primary desire to destroy supra-national arrangements?
or is it to just get the best deal 'for me, whilst me and everybody else is kicking the Trading Bloc rules to death'?
PS. Mexico, herself, has indicated her desire to re-locate to Mercosur/Unasur and to leave the Northern group.
GeoffWard,
Apr 10th, 2011 - 08:11 pm - Link - Report abuse 0A trade agreement does not destroy a trading block, the purpose of a trading bloc is not protectionism, but to facilitate trade and commercial activities among countries.
If Peru and Mexico sign a trade agreement, it is to the benefit of its citizens who can provide products and services of mutual benefit.
Mexico has never indicated that it wishes to leave the Nafta agreement, it has voice its interest in being also part of Mercosur but that does not imply abandoning a the Nafta agreement.
(i) Sooooo,
Apr 10th, 2011 - 09:33 pm - Link - Report abuse 0if all countries signed up with all trading blocs, this would be 'a good thing',
yes?
no?
(ii) Peru & Mexico want a level playing field to trade with (non-specific) The Far East. . . . yes?
All my questions in #3 still apply
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